Evan,
I understand the argument people are making; two separate definitions of obstruction: one from Barr and one from the Mueller report. In Barr's argument he states:
"In making this determination, we noted that the Special Counsel recognized that “the evidence does not establish that the President was involved in an underlying crime related to Russian election interference," and that, while not determinative, the absence of such evidence bears upon the President's intent with respect to obstruction. Generally speaking, to obtain and sustain an obstruction conviction, the government would need to prove beyond a reasonable doubt that a person, acting with corrupt intent, engaged in obstructive conduct with a sufficient nexus to a pending or contemplated proceeding. In cataloguing the President's actions, many of which took place in public view, the report identifies no actions that, in our judgment, constitute obstructive conduct, had a nexus to a pending or contemplated proceeding, and were done with corrupt intent, each of which, under the Department's principles of federal prosecution guiding charging decisions, would need to be proven beyond a reasonable doubt to establish an obstruction-of-justice offense."
This is a more narrowly defined view than the broader view of the Mueller report. For example section 1503 says: The nexus showing has subjective and objective components. As an objective matter, a defendant must act "in a manner that is likely to obstruct justice ," such that the statute "excludes defendants who have an evil purpose but use means that would only unnaturally and improbably be successful. " Aguilar, 515 U.S. at 601-602 ( emphasis added; internal quotation marks omitted). "[T]he endeavor must have the natural and probable effect of interfering with the due administration of justice."
Wow. That's pretty much a catch-all. And if strictly applied as written there would be a whole lot of obstruction cases being tried. Like say, Hillary Clinton. But I digress.
My point is this, Barr applied an narrower interpretation of the law, but he did not bastardize the law. That is my opinion on it. You, of course, can lament how wrong I am. But I assure you, I have read this with a critical, objective eye. I have nothing against Mueller other than I don't feel as though he finished his job. He is a prosecutor who didn't want to make a final decision about a matter he was investigating. He said so in his report. Okay. Fine. Let's forget about bringing charges against a sitting president, which I'll get to in a minute, but let's look at the language again in his conclusion.
The evidence we obtained about the President's actions and intent presents difficult issues that would need to be resolved if we were
making a traditional prosecutorial judgment. At the same time , if we had confidence after a thorough investigation of the facts that the President clearly did not commit obstruction of justice, we would so state. Based on the facts and the applicable legal standards, we are unable to reach
that judgment. Accordingly, while this report does not conclude that the President committed a crime, it also does not exonerate him.
I know, I know, everyone is stuck on alllllll the rest of it. He's not exonerated!!! Yes, I know! But you know what else I know? Mueller did not conclude a thing. So, for those who want to get mad at Barr's interpretation, I say, get mad at Mueller. The ball was in his court. He dropped it. Now, regarding not charging a sitting president, which everyone seems fine with when excusing Mueller's reasons for not charging Trump--it suddenly becomes inexcusable when Barr doesn't charge him. Funny how one is doing his job and the other is a puppet for Trump. This is said, by the way, toward the media and left-wing propagandist. The hypocrisy is wildly blatant. As for the other side of the aisle, anyone who doesn't see the moral decay inside this WH has lost their own moral compass, and probably did so when they decided to elect someone who never owned one.